Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 30.06.2025 18:23
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What does the Bible say about the Antichrist? How will we know when he arrives on the scene?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.